Answer / deepak

(Actual enthalpy drop/isentropic enyhalpy drop)

In Rankine cycle there is a concept of Tm(mean temp of heat addition)For calculating the efficiency of the cycle we generally use n=1-T2/T1 again Tm taking into consideration we get n=1-T2/Tm as T1>Tm so he efficiency will be different for same cycle. Can anybody explain how is it possible? advance appriciation for your effort

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