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Mr. Sohan works for Azania Company. The company grants 1000 shares to Mr. Sohan in 2008. At that point each share is worth Rs. 100. In 2010, he decides to sell his entire stake and at that point, the value is Rs. 120 per share. The government declares that the tax to be paid is 10% of the entire profit. Due to the inflation, the value of a rupee in 2010 is equivalent to 0.8 of a rupee in 2008. In this situation, which of the following model indicates the actual tax to be paid by the investor?
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Answer / Bikram Kumar Tiwary
Let's break down the problem step by step:n1. The profit per share is Rs. 20 (120 - 100).n2. Since there are 1000 shares, the total profit is Rs. 20 * 1000 = Rs. 200,000.n3. The tax rate is 10%, so the tax to be paid is Rs. 200,000 * 0.1 = Rs. 20,000.n4. In 2010, the value of a rupee is 0.8 times its value in 2008. So, the actual cost of the shares in 2010 (in terms of 2008 money) is Rs. 100 * 0.8 = Rs. 80.n5. Since there are 1000 shares, the total cost in 2010 (in terms of 2008 money) is Rs. 80 * 1000 = Rs. 800,000.n6. The actual profit (in terms of 2008 money) is Rs. 200,000 - Rs. 800,000 = -Rs. 600,000 (which means a loss).nTherefore, the model indicating the actual tax to be paid by the investor is that the investor incurred a loss of Rs. 600,000.
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