Answer Posted / nagendra kumar

actually i think that in 3 phase formula is p = ROOT3 VI COS$ AND in 1 phase formula will P = VI COS$

SO 40 *1000 = 220 * 0.8 ( if we consider voltage 220 volt in single phase) 40000 = 176 i
I 40000/176 = 227 AMP

40*1000 = 415*0.8 I( IF WE CONSIDER V 415 VOLT)

40000 = 332I
I= 40000/332 = 120 AMP

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