What is "Readjustig goal and Milestone" in project
managment and project planing
- 16 Answers
- 31093 Views
- IBM, I also Faced
- E-Mail Answers
Answer Posted / cristina giese
Readjust goals and milestones can be shares resulting from process of change management, where a scope change was requested and approved and will be implemented.
This action affects the entire project planning because it is necessary to revise the scope, cost estimating, the schedule and project risks. Just as the baseline.
| Is This Answer Correct ? | 0 Yes | 0 No |
Post New Answer View All Answers
Your project is progressing as planned. The project team has comp up with a demo that the sales team will use when making presentations to perspective clients. You will do which of the following at your next stakeholder process. A. Report on the progress of the demo and note that it's a completed task B. Preview the demo for stakeholders and obtain their approval and sign-off C. Review the technical documentation of the demo and obtain approval and sign-off D. Report that the demo has been noted as a completed task in the information retrieval system
Explain the difference between risk and issues?
Your project involves the research and development of a new food additive. You’re ready to release the product to your customer when you discover that a minor reaction might occur in people with certain conditions. The reactions to date have been very minor, and no known long-lasting side effects have been noted. As project manager you should: A. Do nothing because the reactions are so minor that very few people will be affected. B. Inform the customer that you've discovered this condition and tell them you'll research it further to determine the impacts. C. Inform your customer that there is no problem with the additive release the product to them. D. Tell the customer you'll correct the reaction problems in the next batch but you'll release the first batch of product to them now to begin using.
Scope definition is necessary for all of the following reasons except: A. To subdivide project deliverables into smaller components B. To assess the stability of the project scope C. To facilitate time and cost estimates D. To facilitate responsibility and assignment
Common causes of variances are a result of all of the following except: A. Random variances B. Predictable variances C. Special variances D. Variances that are always present in the process
Which of the following describes a unique characteristic of the project Executing and Controlling processes? A. The core processes in the Executing and Controlling processes are from the Project Integration knowledge area from the Project Integration knowledge area. B. Both the Executing and Controlling processes measure variances in project performance and use corrective action to bring performance hack in line with the plan. C. Executing is an input to the Controlling processes, and Controlling is an input to Execution. D. Executing and controlling each have only one core process.
Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP. A. Project Management Policy and Ethics Guide B. Project Management Professional Standards and Ethics C. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics D. Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct
You are the project manager for a scheduled version release of your company’s software tracking product. You have linked the WBS and project scope definition and assigned roles and responsibilities. You might want to display the roles and responsibilities in which of the following? A. RDM B. PDM C. AOA D. RAM
What is the name of the unplanned response used to deal with negative risk events in the Risk Monitoring and Control process? A. Mitigation B. Contingency plans C. Workarounds D. Corrective action
You have been hired as a contract project manger for Grapevine Vineyards. Grapevine wants you to design an Internet wine club for their customers. One of the activities for this project is the installation and testing of several new servers. You know from past experience it takes about 16 hours per server to accomplish this task. Since you're installing 10 new servers, you estimate this activity to take 160 hours. Which of the estimating techniques have you used? A. Analogous estimating B. Bottom-up estimating C. Quantitatively based duration D. Reserve time
Your project has recently experienced change. Some of the agreed-upon WBS elements have been changed as a result. What kind of change has occurred? A. Schedule change B. Risk response change C. Quality change D. Scope change
You are a project manager for Dutch Harbor Consulting. Your latest project involved the upgrade of an organization’s operating system on 236 servers. You performed this project under contract. You are in the Closing process and know that product verification is for what purpose? A. To verify the goals of the project and assure the product of the project is complete B. To evaluate all the work of the project and compare results to project scope C. To verify all the work was completed correctly and satisfactorily D. To evaluate project goals and assure the product of the project meets the requirements
You are a project manager for Cinema Snicker Productions. Your company specializes in producing comedy films for the big screen. Your latest project has just been completed and accepted. You've been given your next project, which starts right away. Which of the following is true? A. This project ended due to extinction because it was completed and accepted. B. This project ended due to integration because it was completed and accepted and the project manager moved on to a new project. C. This project ended due to addition because it was completed and accepted and archived into the company's catalog of available films. D. This project ended due to integration because it was completed and accepted.
What is the difference between direct and indirect measures?
Three people are responsible for establishing cost of quality theories. Crosby and Juran are two of them, and their theories respectively are: A. Grades of quality, fitness for use B. Fitness for use, zero defects C. Zero defects, fitness for use D. Cost of quality, zero defects
