Interested to Buy Any Domain ? << Click Here >> for more details...
In Rankine cycle there is a concept of Tm(mean temp of heat
addition)For calculating the efficiency of the cycle we
generally use
n=1-T2/T1
again Tm taking into consideration we get
n=1-T2/Tm
as T1>Tm so he efficiency will be different for same cycle.
Can anybody explain how is it possible?
advance appriciation for your effort
- 6 Answers
- 14476 Views
- Sail, I also Faced
- E-Mail Answers
Answer Posted / palash dolai
I understand the difference now.All have explained in nicely.
I thought both formula can be used for same cycle.
| Is This Answer Correct ? | 0 Yes | 0 No |
Post New Answer View All Answers
Define angular momentum?
Interview question paper
Is a diesel engines maximum rpm limited by the diesel burn rate?
Whether entropy is intensive property or extensive property ?
What is pitting ? How it is caused ?
what shows avribiations related to bearing blocks
sir, can you give me full idea for computational fluid dynamices and how can work in CFD
How to find rating of Chiller a.c. plant i.e. how to calculate the a.c. load of an area, feeded by Chiller ?
What is breather frequency of tank?
I want technical questions of previous reqruitment examination
one kg of gas is compressed adiabatically from 1 kg/sq.cm,1 cubic metre volume and 300 kelvin to 5 kg/sq.cm,0.5 cubic metre and 400 kelvin.work transfer in this process will be
Is it the relation between friction and power losses ? is it relation among stress, friction and power loses in cicular ring ?
What are the dimensionless parameters used in forced convection?
Hi i am having 5 yrs of exp in Proe wildfire,Anybody have the jobs related to Aerospace
send interview questins about pro_e to me mohanrvs_1984@yahoo.co.in
