In Rankine cycle there is a concept of Tm(mean temp of heat
addition)For calculating the efficiency of the cycle we
generally use
n=1-T2/T1

again Tm taking into consideration we get
n=1-T2/Tm

as T1>Tm so he efficiency will be different for same cycle.


Can anybody explain how is it possible?
advance appriciation for your effort

Answer Posted / palash dolai

I understand the difference now.All have explained in nicely.
I thought both formula can be used for same cycle.

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