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In Rankine cycle there is a concept of Tm(mean temp of heat
addition)For calculating the efficiency of the cycle we
generally use
n=1-T2/T1
again Tm taking into consideration we get
n=1-T2/Tm
as T1>Tm so he efficiency will be different for same cycle.
Can anybody explain how is it possible?
advance appriciation for your effort
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Answer Posted / hisham tariq
eff=1-(T2/T1)---------CARNOT EFFICIENCY (IDEAL CYCLE)
eff=1-(T2/TM)-------------RANKINE CYCLE EFFICIENCY
CARNOT EFF > RANKINE EFF
If you know the rankine cycle and molliers diagram there you will find turbine entry temperature (T1) and economizer entry temperaure (T4). TM is the mean of both values.
PS: eff of rankine cysle can also be calculated by
(h1-h4)/(h2-h3)
Since, h=U+PV and U=TS -PV .So h=TS ,if you plug this guy in above formula with T replaced by Tm yoy gonna get same eff
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