In Rankine cycle there is a concept of Tm(mean temp of heat
addition)For calculating the efficiency of the cycle we
generally use
n=1-T2/T1
again Tm taking into consideration we get
n=1-T2/Tm
as T1>Tm so he efficiency will be different for same cycle.
Can anybody explain how is it possible?
advance appriciation for your effort
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Answer Posted / ab_ina7
sorry i didn't get your question...i think (1-t2/t1) is used for reversible cycle like carnot cycle...for rankine cycle
(h1-h2)/(h1-hf4) is used....
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