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In Rankine cycle there is a concept of Tm(mean temp of heat
addition)For calculating the efficiency of the cycle we
generally use
n=1-T2/T1
again Tm taking into consideration we get
n=1-T2/Tm
as T1>Tm so he efficiency will be different for same cycle.
Can anybody explain how is it possible?
advance appriciation for your effort
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Answer Posted / palash
thanks for the reply Balajee.Yes the efficiency will differ in he two calculations.
But my question was how can there be different efficiency for a same cycle?
Can you help?
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