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In Rankine cycle there is a concept of Tm(mean temp of heat
addition)For calculating the efficiency of the cycle we
generally use
n=1-T2/T1
again Tm taking into consideration we get
n=1-T2/Tm
as T1>Tm so he efficiency will be different for same cycle.
Can anybody explain how is it possible?
advance appriciation for your effort
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Answer Posted / balajee
in the rankine cycle
t1 is greater and t2 will be lesser in temperature.
therefore the mean temp tm will be less then t1 and greater
than t2.
hence the efficiency will be differ
| Is This Answer Correct ? | 5 Yes | 1 No |
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