Interested to Buy Any Domain ? << Click Here >> for more details...
Which one of the payment mode is more effective, whether of
using Partial Payment or Residual Payment in th company for
vendor clearing and for why? Plz. give the explanation.
- 1 Answers
- 4260 Views
- I also Faced
- E-Mail Answers
Answer Posted / md fakhrudsddin ansari
residual payment is more effective as under this selection we can identify and recognie the payment difference or we can again see the vendor due amount, further with this selection we can judge the invoice wise setup and invoice wise partial amount
| Is This Answer Correct ? | 3 Yes | 2 No |
Post New Answer View All Answers
What do you understand by cost center, profit center in controlling?
what is the day to day work of SAP FICO Consultant. which are the documents,white papers he uses. who will assign him work and in what form, is it a flowchart,word document,power point presentation ?and also what is business blue print and how it is documented(word,flow chart),?? please answer my question
What is a ZM entry, is it recorded in the general ledger, and what does it do?
what mean ny cut over activities, p/l, b/s amount how will update
Define meta data, master data and transaction data?
Explain invoice verification (iv) in sap. : fi- accounts payable
What is sap r/1, r/2, r/3 ? Or difference between r/1,r/2,r/3 ?
What type of steps comes from Product Costing to CO-PA ?
Tell me about the tax reports in sap
A finance document usually has an assignment field. This field automatically gets populated during data entry. Where does it get its value?
State the purpose of defining posting keys?
Explain ‘controlling (co)’ in sap?
SAP DEPRECIATION RUN ERROR: I have a problem with depreciation posting. I have searched the forum but did not find any answer. Net book value of $ 559,350 as on April 2012 was fully depreciated by 31 Mar 2017. Additions between April 2012 and March 2017 were correctly depreciated. However, additions from 01 Apr 2017 were fully depreciated when depreciation program was executed. For example, asset acquisition on 01 May 2017 $ 2400 was fully depreciated ($ 2400) which is not correct. It should be $ 2000*20%/12*11 = $ 440. Subsequently, in Jan 2018, on the acquisition of $ 207, the system has posted a positive depreciation of $ 47,469 on the base value of $ 1,640,423.72!!! More surprisingly, acquisition after that is correctly depreciated. For example, acquisition on Jan of $ 3,488.94 was correctly depreciated by $ 174.45 (3488.94*20%/12*3 months). Here are the details of the configuration of depreciation: · Depreciation method SLM · Base method 0014 · Useful life: 5 years (20% depreciation). · Period control 01/01/01/01 · Depreciation after the end of planned life – the box is “checked”. · There is only ordinary depreciation. · “Only negative values and zero allowed” checked in Rule for positive/negative sign for ordinary depreciation in Depreciation Area. · Fiscal year: April to March · SAP ECC 6.0 Can anybody suggest/help how to fix this?
rules for creating asset downpayment account
In accounts receivable, what is the difference between the 'residual payment' and 'part payment' methods of allocating cash?
