In Rankine Cycle we use the concept of Tm(mean temperature of heat addition).In actual cycle the efficiency comes as n=1-T2/T1 Taking Tm into consideration it comes as n=1-T2/Tm as T1>Tm so the efficiency for both case will not same for a same cycle. Can anybody explain how it is possible? Advance appreciation for your effort.Thanks

0 Answers   Sail,

---

How can be calculate discharge of id fan. impeller dia-800 mm,motor capacity 10 hp 2800 rpm,blower opening section 230*130 mm

0 Answers  

---

as started in the job offer notification, is our basic salary of 1lakh good for you if employed?

0 Answers   XYZ,

---

How to increase the humidity content in an air?

4 Answers  

---

what do you mean by emissive power?

0 Answers  

---

---

• What qualities do you look for in a boss?

1 Answers   Petro Star Mount,

---

what is the purpose of actuator

3 Answers   LB Industries,

---

write the formula for finding dimension of bearing from bearing number

11 Answers   Coromandel Agrico, FAG, Jain Group, Jindal, Kyro, MG, Quess Corp, Seven Star, SKF, Vedanta,

---

Dear sir, I have applied section engineer post at rrb Chennai.Please send me the previous technical question papers and answers

0 Answers   RRB,

---

What are the causes of high alkalinity in boiler water?

2 Answers   ABC Inc, RRB, Siemens,

---

welding defects

2 Answers   MRF, UIO,

---

kind of bearing

2 Answers  

---